To preface, I'd like to get my terminology correct: is all dietary induced inflammation necessarily caused by pro-inflammatory cytokines and eicosanoids? Or are there other methods as well?

I know:

That Gluten induces a cytokine response,

that n-6 PUFAs "are substrates for eicosanoid and cytokine synthesis",

and that "n-6 fatty acid arachidonic acid (AA; 20:4n-6) gives rise to eicosanoid mediators that have established roles in inflammation"

So given that evidence, I glean that largely dietary inflammation is going to be based on one of the several cytokines. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

With that (hopefully) cleared up - my actual question is: can the level of inflammatory cytokines in the body cause a cortisol response? Is it possible that chronic inflammation due to diet could be responsible for elevated cortisol levels?

Further, will long-term elevated cortisol levels result in physical inflammation? Do the levels of the two necessarily scale? Is it possible to have one or the other, long-term, without the other?

Edit: on doing a bit more reading, I've found that short term cortisol release is intended to control inflammatory response, which makes sense - to mediate acute stress. What about in the case of chronic elevated levels? Does it become inflammatory? And what of chronic inflammation alone, will it become the cause of chronic elevated cortisol? I did find that heart disease may be implicated by "a dysregulated cortisol secretion that may involve a failure to contain inflammatory activity."