Paleo Diet and Paleolithic Diet Questions & Answers

Question

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From the literature it seems that almost all cases of GERD/acid reflux occur due to too little acid not too much. I think this is because the stomach needs to contain a certain amount of hydrochloric acid before it shuts the LES. Correct me if I'm wrong.

My question is can it ever be because of too much acid?

The reason I ask is because I have all the signs of low stomach acid (I think due to H Pylori) except GERD/acid reflux and my condition generally improves when I take betaine however it never is completely resolved. I am hesitant to take very high amounts of this because I start to get acid reflux, however I want to take high amounts to see if it completely resolves my problems.

So I was wondering if my stomach was originally producing no ACID thus I got no GERD symptoms but when I add enough betaine the amount of acid is still too low however high enough now to cause GERD. If this were the case then no doubt even more acid would solve my problems however if not I could cause damage. Any Insights are appreciated.

flag	asked Jun 7 at 11:20 Desperate S 180●1●10

balor123 · Answer 1 · 2012-06-07 13:45:49Z UTC

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That is one explanation but there are many others. There's a test for acidity which you can have a GI order. There's also a blood test (and treatment) for H Pylori. You should see a GI if for no other reason than to rule out more serious conditions.

answered Jun 7 at 13:45

balor123
5,955●2●14●58

I am waiting on an H pylori test but I now suspect this is the cause as it could also cause low stomach acidity. – Desperate S Jun 10 at 14:16

Jamie · Answer 2 · 2012-06-07 15:31:55Z UTC

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high acid, low acid, SIBO, weakened LES, infection....lots of causes for GERD....

How do you do on dairy BTW? Or anti-biotics?

answered Jun 7 at 15:31

Jamie
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	Very Bad with dairy, was on antibiotics for 2 weeks. Do not really have a problem with gerd, it only occurs when I take acid supplements however I have all the signs of low acidity. I am fairly sure it is due to hpylori however. – Desperate S Jun 10 at 14:18
	Did it get a little better on ABs? You may want to look at SIBO (similar symptom wise to hylori), and perhaps diet protocols for dealing with SIBO. Milk has two potential baddies. One is casien, which is a food intolerance - food intolerances may be genetic, or connected to leaky gut syndrome (which probably happens due to SIBO, or too many inflammatory foods). The other is lactose, which is a sugar (bacteria loves sugar). Have you ever tried aged cheddar cheese, and found it better than milk? (such cheese is very low in lactose) – Jamie Jun 11 at 0:17
	I recently ate extra mature cheedar cheese, an entire block because I'm mental, and was constipated for almost a week. I think that indicates the lactose isn't the main problem. I have read something about opiates in diary products that can cause constipation. Thing is before I had my ulcer I was eating cheese in normal amounts and I am fairly sure I was fine... – Desperate S Jun 12 at 10:50

Rigton · Answer 3 · 2012-06-07 15:54:23Z UTC

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome...although it's pretty rare. I'm not saying rare enough for someone you know not to have it, but rare enough it shouldn't be considered until everything else has failed. From the research I've been reading eosinophilic esophagitis is an often overlooked point of exploration (thanks to Melissa HGL for pointing me in that direction!)

As for the LES, I've had numerous doctors tell me that it's either 1.) A theory or 2.) It's something they cannot accurately diagnosis. Remember though! Doctors can never be wrong...EVER. <---sarcasm by the way.

Is acid reflux ever caused by too much acid?

3 Answers