I have read over and over that balancing out the omega fats ratio helps with inflammatory foods.
Is there anyone with an understanding of biochemistry who can explain (go deep science jargon if you must) what is it in omega-3 fats that are anti-inflammatory in the human body and omega-6 fats pro-inflammatory? What is it about them that makes a human body see them and fire up such responses?
Don't be afraid of being over my head, you might be but it will give me something ask about to learn more.
If you look at figure 2 here, you'll see that each side (o-3s and 6s) share enzymes that allow the fatty acids to be elongated into the usable EPA/DHA, etc. So that's a reason to keep them in balance, so one side doesn't win the tug of war, so to speak.
Prostaglandins are derived from arachidonic acid (an omega 6), and some of them cause a rise in body temp, inflammation, and pain. The anti-inflammatory and antipyretic (fever-reducing) activity of asprin work by inhibiting prostaglandin COX-2.
There are two pathways from arachidonic acid, cyclic and linear. Linear produces leukotrienes for normal immune responses, while the cyclic pathway results in the formation of thromboxanes and prostaglandins. These also function as a part of clotting and anti-clotting roles.
Lots of info here, trying to keep it brief while still address your request to learn more jargon.
A good book on all this stuff is 'Advanced Nutrition and Human Metabolism; by Gropper, Smith, and Groff
Omega-6 and Allergy Research 3 Answers