I has been mentioned here, and elsewhere too, that the best way to go is via a glucometer. If I am insulin-resistant, the meter should show excess sugar after consuming some insulinogenic protein:
http://paleohacks.com/questions/38013/whey-protein-insulin-spikes
My question is about the exact mechanics of this rationale. Since whey is just protein and does not contain carbohydrate, if insulin gets elevated because of it I would expect sugar levels in the blood to crash and not spike, as the replies to the above question seem to suggest.
So what is the exact logic behind testing blood sugar to measure insulin response to protein and expecting a sugar spike if I am IR? Where is the glucose going to come from since protein does not contain it? Is the liver going to kick into accelerated gluconeogenesis because whey is fast-absorbing, and this is what causes the insulin spike? Or is insulin secretion triggered via some other path
Or is it that we are really interested in the sugar level 'delta' that consuming whey will generate, either high, or low, and based on it draw our insulin secretion conclusions? If so, what would be an acceptable 'sugar delta' for whey not to pose a problem?
